Lord of the Rings
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Lord of the Rings Question
How exactly did Saruman manage to corrupt Kind Theoden of Rohan?
In the movies it only shows that Saruman was the cause for the corruption, but it also showed that when Theoden was speaking and active, Saruman was very focussed on that, but how could he remain the entire time focussed on that, when it shows that he clearly isn't always. Did I miss something(most likely) or was it an editing error (less likely)?
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